Sujato's 3rd jhana sophistry
DN 2: Sāmaññaphalasutta—Bhikkhu Sujato (suttacentral.net)
4.3.2.7. Third Absorption4.3.2.7. Tatiyajhāna
Furthermore, with the fading away of rapture, a mendicant enters and remains in the third absorption, where they meditate with equanimity, mindful and aware, personally experiencing the bliss of which the noble ones declare, ‘Equanimous and mindful, one meditates in bliss.’Puna caparaṁ, mahārāja, bhikkhu pītiyā ca virāgā upekkhako ca viharati sato sampajāno, sukhañca kāyena paṭisaṁvedeti, yaṁ taṁ ariyā ācikkhanti: ‘upekkhako satimā sukhavihārī’ti, tatiyaṁ jhānaṁ upasampajja viharati.They drench, steep, fill, and spread their body with bliss free of rapture. There’s no part of the body that’s not spread with bliss free of rapture.So imameva kāyaṁ nippītikena sukhena abhisandeti parisandeti paripūreti parippharati, nāssa kiñci sabbāvato kāyassa nippītikena sukhena apphuṭaṁ hoti.
Frankk comment
In other articles I've already shown the fallacy of Sujato's justification for turning the Buddha's explicit qualification in standard third jhana formula, that sukha (bliss) is experienced with the body (as opposed to the mind). In short it's fallacious because 4 jhanas does not equate with the 8 vimokkhas, in fact the vimokkha formula doesn't even explicitly mention any of the 4 jhanas. Even if it did, you can not claim 3rd jhana is a formless attainment just because 7 of the 8 vimokkhas are formless. And he would have to show that 4 jhanas fits in one of the 7 formless slots, and not the first vimokkha where one is percipient of the body.
In the above DN 2 excerpt, one has to wonder, if he thinks 3rd jhana kaya/body experiencing sukha is metaphorical, only "personally experienced" rather than literally felt with the body, then why in the very next paragraph, the start of the 3rd jhana simile, does he not translate and apply the same sophist technique there, a few words away? Why is sukha and kaya in 3rd jhana metaphorical, and then suddenly become literal a few words later in the simile?
It would be like saying in 4th jhana he personally does not experience suffering or happiness
Do you see the problem if that were how he translated 4th jhana? You lose critical information. Is that suffering of the body or the mind? Is it joy of the body or joy of the mind?
SN 48.37 details which of those factors are bodily or mental
“tatra, bhikkhave, | “Therein, monks, |
yañca sukh-indriyaṃ yañca so-manass-indriyaṃ, | the pleasure-faculty and-the good-mental-[state]-faculty, |
sukhā sā vedanā daṭṭhabbā. | {should be seen as} pleasant ** feeling |
tatra, bhikkhave, | “Therein, monks, |
yañca dukkh-indriyaṃ yañca do-manass-indriyaṃ, | The pain-faculty and-the bad-mental-[state]-faculty, |
dukkhā sā vedanā daṭṭhabbā. | {should be seen as} painful ** feeling. |
tatra, bhikkhave, | “Therein, monks, |
yadidaṃ upekkh-indriyaṃ, | the equanimity-faculty, |
A-dukkham-a-sukhā sā vedanā daṭṭhabbā. | {should be seen as} neither-painful-nor-pleasant ** feeling. |
imāni kho, bhikkhave, pañc’-indriyānī”ti. | these indeed, ***********, [are the] five-faculties.” |
So why, if 4th jhana is carefully distinguishing between mental and physical factors, would the Buddha in 3rd jhana suddenly decide to become whimsical and use the same type of terminology that distinguishes between mental and physical factors but actually have it mean the opposite, metaphorically, "as he personally experiences happiness"? Wouldn't that be insane to use wording that would easily misconstrued? And we'd have to wait 2500 years for the great prophet Sujato to explain the Buddha's sleight of hand and tricky meaning?
Either the Buddha is incompetent or Sujato is a sophist. You decide which is more likely.
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